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If $\Omega$ is an open Lipschitz domain with bounded boundary then their exists a continuous operator $E: W^{s,p}(\Omega) \rightarrow W^{s,p}(\mathbb{R}^d)$ where $s\in (0,1)$ such that $Eu=u$ on $\Omega$.

A similar result holds for integer order Sobolev spaces.

But in case of integer order sobolev spaces one always has the existence of a continous extension operator $E: W_0^{k,p}(\Omega) \rightarrow W^{k,p}(\mathbb{R}^d)$ regardless of the regularity of $\Omega$ e.g. the zero extension.

My question is, if $\Omega$ is only open, do we also have the existence of a continuous extension operator

$$E: W_0^{s,p}(\Omega) \rightarrow W^{s,p}(\mathbb{R}^d) \text{ where } s\in(0,1)$$

If yes, can someone suggest literature where this is mentioned?

Honestly, I don't want to bother trying to prove it myself, or rather, I would like to have at least assurance that this is true first.

By the way the space $W^{s,p}_0(\Omega)$ is defined as the closure of $C_0^\infty(\Omega)$ wrt. to the norm $\|u\|_{W^{s,p}}^p:=|\cdot|_{s,p,\Omega}^p+\|\cdot\|_{L^p(\Omega)}^p$, where $|u|_{s,p,\Omega}^p:=\int_{\Omega \times \Omega} \frac{|u(x)-u(y)|^p}{|x-y|^{d+sp}}d(x,y)$ is the Gagliardo seminorm. If $\Omega=\mathbb{R}^d$ the definition is similar. But one can also use the definition via Fourrier transform they both equivalent in this case.

My thought on this: As in the integer-order case one might consider the extension by zero of $u \in W^{s,p}_0(\Omega)$ and try to show that this extension satsifies the above requirement. Yet, we have that

$$\|Eu\|_{W^{s,p}(\mathbb{R}^d)}^p=\|u\|_{W^{s,p}(\Omega)}^p+2\int_U \left(\int_{\mathbb{R}^d\setminus U} \frac{1}{|x-y|^{d+sp}} dy \right)|u(x)|^pdx\quad (1)$$

If this could be further estimated by $C\|u\|_{W^{s,p}}$ for some constant $C$ then the extension by zero would be continuous from $W^{s,p}_0(\Omega)$ to $W^{s,p}(\mathbb{R}^d)$.

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  • $\begingroup$ You may add the definition of $W^{s,p}(\mathbb R^d)$ too, by completeness sake $\endgroup$ Commented Apr 7 at 17:24
  • $\begingroup$ Thsi defintion holds for arbtrary open $\Omega \subseteq \mathbb{R}^d$ $\endgroup$
    – Perelman
    Commented Apr 7 at 17:27
  • $\begingroup$ So by the definition you are adopting $W^{s,p}(\mathbb R^d)=W^{s,p}_0(\mathbb R^d)$, and $W^{s,p}_0$ is defined above, right? $\endgroup$ Commented Apr 7 at 18:03
  • $\begingroup$ @PietroMajer yes $\endgroup$
    – Perelman
    Commented Apr 7 at 18:19
  • $\begingroup$ A natural definition of $C^\infty_0(\Omega)$ is: all $C^\infty$ functions $u:\mathbb R^d\to\mathbb R$ with $\text{supp}(u)\subset \Omega$. So $W^{s,p}_0(\Omega)$ is increasing by inclusion wrto $\Omega$, and we don't even have to extend anything. $\endgroup$ Commented Apr 7 at 18:42

3 Answers 3

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This may be an overkill : you can use the closed graph theorem. If $(u_n)_n$ converges to $u$ in $W^{s,p}_0(\Omega)$ and $(E(u_n))_n$ converges to $v$ in $W^{s,p}(\mathbf{R}^d)$, then both convergences imply convergence in $L^p(\Omega)$ and $E(u_n)=u_n$ in $\Omega$, so you have $v=u=E(u)$ inside $\Omega$, and also $v=E(u)$ outside $\Omega$ because both are vanishing ($E(u)$ by definition and $v$ as $L^p(\mathbf{R}^d\setminus \Omega)$ limit of zero functions ...). So $E$ is continuous, since both spaces are Banach.

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  • $\begingroup$ Interesting approach, but why can we say that $E(u_n)$ converges? $\endgroup$
    – Perelman
    Commented Apr 7 at 20:21
  • $\begingroup$ Well, if you want to prove that the graph of $E$ is closed, you can use the sequential characterization : you assume that $u_n$ converges to $u$ and $E(u_n)$ converges to some $v$ and then you just have to prove that $v=E(u)$ (that is : the graph of $E$ is closed sequentially). $\endgroup$ Commented Apr 7 at 21:14
  • $\begingroup$ @AymannMoussa I think this works i will try it out. thank you $\endgroup$
    – Perelman
    Commented Apr 7 at 21:18
  • $\begingroup$ I don't think this is right. Did you use E being extension? If so why the argument fail if s=1? Notice that not all open sets are $W^{1,p}$-extension domain. $\endgroup$
    – Liding Yao
    Commented Apr 8 at 0:22
  • $\begingroup$ @LidingYao why do you say the result is false with $s=1$ ? We're only speaking of $W^{s,p}_0$- extension, so the functions at stake cannot " see " the boundary. $\endgroup$ Commented Apr 8 at 5:54
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This is a somewhat delicate topic and I think what has been proposed so far did not capture fully what is going on. (Probably I am missing something, too, and I also did not fully answer OP's question, so maybe this is just a very extended comment.)

From OPs last formula identity for $\|Eu\|_{W^{s,p}(\mathbb{R}^d)}$, a short calculation shows that zero extension is in fact a bounded linear operator $$W^{s,p}(\Omega) \cap L^p(\Omega;\operatorname{dist}_{\partial\Omega}^{-s}) \to W^{s,p}(\mathbb{R}^d).$$

However, in general, the space defined in OP $$W^{s,p}_0(\Omega) := \overline{C_0^\infty(\Omega)}^{\|\cdot\|_{W^{s,p}(\Omega)}}$$ is not embedded into the weighted space $W^{s,p}(\Omega) \cap L^p(\Omega;\operatorname{dist}_{\partial\Omega}^{-s})$. In fact, this requires some boundary regularity. It is unclear to me whether zero extension is still a bounded linear operator on $W^{s,p}_0(\Omega)$ if that space does not embed into the weighted space.

There is a bunch of related literature about the relation of the above mentioned fractional Sobolev spaces with zero boundary conditions, referring to $(s,p)$ [or fractional] Hardy inequalities, with sufficient conditions. See for instance On density of compactly supported smooth functions in fractional Sobolev spaces by Dyda and Kijaczko (in particular Section 5) and the references there.

Note that it is classical that $W^{1,p}(\Omega) \cap L^p(\Omega;\operatorname{dist}_{\partial\Omega}^{-1})$ is embedded into $W^{1,p}_0(\Omega)$ (with the analogous definition as above) irrespective of boundary regularity. The other way around, again, requires boundary regularity. I would expect the same to be the case for the present case of fractional Sobolev spaces, but I do not know a striking reference right now.

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  • $\begingroup$ Do you happen to know a reference for an embedding result that relates that weight $\operatorname{dist}^{-k}_{\partial \Omega}$ to $W_0^{k,p}(\Omega)$ (for $k=1$ or maybe even for larger $k$)? I tried to search for it, but did not find much. $\endgroup$ Commented Apr 11 at 16:14
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    $\begingroup$ @JochenGlueck Sure! (Else I would not have dared to say anything about "classical" :-)) How about Theorem 5.3.4 in Edmunds and Evans: Spectral Theory and Differential Operators? $\endgroup$
    – Hannes
    Commented Apr 12 at 6:54
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    $\begingroup$ This is great, thanks a lot for the reference! $\endgroup$ Commented Apr 12 at 7:56
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    $\begingroup$ May I add to "...Zero extension is still a bounded linear operator for the given $W^{s,p}_0(\Omega)$ by Ayman's abstract answer...": Thats unfortunately not necessarily the case, since we do not know if $E$ is even a well defined map into $W^{s,p}(\mathbb{R}^d)$ (see (1) in my post). I did not realize that too in the first view. $\endgroup$
    – Perelman
    Commented Apr 12 at 10:46
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    $\begingroup$ @Perelman, I think you're right, I just took for granted that $E$ arrives in $W^{s,p}(\mathbf{R}^d)$ because of the last sentence of your post. My answer only tells you that if $E$ is well-defined then it has to be bounded. $\endgroup$ Commented Apr 12 at 11:42
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This is "trivial" in the sense that $W^{s,p}_0(\Omega)$ can be regarded as a subspace of $W^{s,p}(\mathbb R^n)$ where the functions are vanishing on $\Omega^c$. And you don't need to take any special construct to build a $E$ for that.

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  • $\begingroup$ I dont see how thats the case if $s\in(0,1)$, since for the Gagliardo seminorm $|\cdot|_{s,p, \Omega}$ we have $|u|_{s,p,\Omega}<|Eu|_{s,p,\mathbb{R}^d}$ $\endgroup$
    – Perelman
    Commented Apr 7 at 16:34
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    $\begingroup$ @Perelman So what is the definition of $W^{s,p}$ and Gagliardo seminorm? I cannot give a decent answer without knowing what info you have / don't have. Say what definition you are using in the question side because under some definitions it needs a short proof, while others don't. $\endgroup$
    – Liding Yao
    Commented Apr 7 at 16:48
  • $\begingroup$ yes sure, I added further specification to my question. $\endgroup$
    – Perelman
    Commented Apr 7 at 17:13

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