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Apr 9 at 2:26 comment added Liding Yao @AymanMoussa I see, that makes sense! I guess there is a more constructive way for that but I don't get a clue.
Apr 8 at 5:54 comment added Ayman Moussa @LidingYao why do you say the result is false with $s=1$ ? We're only speaking of $W^{s,p}_0$- extension, so the functions at stake cannot " see " the boundary.
Apr 8 at 0:22 comment added Liding Yao I don't think this is right. Did you use E being extension? If so why the argument fail if s=1? Notice that not all open sets are $W^{1,p}$-extension domain.
Apr 7 at 21:18 comment added Perelman @AymannMoussa I think this works i will try it out. thank you
Apr 7 at 21:18 vote accept Perelman
Apr 7 at 21:14 comment added Ayman Moussa Well, if you want to prove that the graph of $E$ is closed, you can use the sequential characterization : you assume that $u_n$ converges to $u$ and $E(u_n)$ converges to some $v$ and then you just have to prove that $v=E(u)$ (that is : the graph of $E$ is closed sequentially).
Apr 7 at 20:21 comment added Perelman Interesting approach, but why can we say that $E(u_n)$ converges?
Apr 7 at 19:39 history answered Ayman Moussa CC BY-SA 4.0