Fix a prime $p >2$ and $q_1$, $q_2$ such that $q_i - 1$ is exactly divisible by $p$. For any $n$, $a$, $b $, consider the sum
$$\sum_{i=0}^{p^{n-1}-1}\zeta_{p^n}^{aq_1^i+bq_2^i}.$$
Is this always divisible by $p^{n-1}$? In fact, perhaps it is always $0$ or all the summands are equal? I believe the following question is also relevant. For any j, is
$$\sum_{i=0}^{p^{n-1}-1}\zeta_{p^n}^{pij+bq_2^i} \equiv 0 \pmod{p^{n-1}}? $$
(If $q_1 =q_2$, I think this is true and not hard to see. I am really interested in a more general version but this is the easiest case I don't know how to do.)