[Edit, Will Jagy:EDITED The OP takes an entire paragraph to describe a certain decompositionby Y. TheChoi - I have attempted to paraphrase the original question is whetherinto something a bit terser and more precise; if this decomposition exists. As the second paragraph gives an example inis not what the negativeoriginal poster intended, one might regard this as fairly open endedthey should make corrections themselves.
(1) does the decomposition never exist, (2) does it always exist, (3) if neither extreme, when does it exist?
End edit]
SupposeLet $G$ isbe a locally compact abelian (LCA) group and let $f\in L^1(G)$. Is there a decomposition ofCan we always find $L^1(G)$$g\in L^2(G)$ such that for every $f\in L^1(G)$, we have$h=f-g$ lies in $f=g+h$$L^1(G)\cap B(G)$, where $g$ belongs to$B(G)$ is the Fourier-Stieltjes algebra of $L^2(G)$ and$G$?
($B(G)$ consists of all Fourier transforms of complex-valued regular Borel measures on $h$ satisfies$\Gamma$, the following properties?dual group of $G$.)
- $h$ belongs to $L^1(G)$ and the inversion formula of Fourier transform holds for $h$; or, more strictly, $h$ satisfies that
- $h$ belongs to $L^1(G)∩B(G)$, where $B(G)$ contains all functions of the form $\int (x,Y)d\mu$, where $\mu$ is a complex-valued regular measure on $\Gamma$. Here $\Gamma$ denotes the dual of $G$.
If there are counterexamples, are there counterexamples with $G={\mathbb R}^n$?
In the case $G={\mathbb R}^n$, as we know, the Calderon-Zygmund decomposition theorem asserts that every $f\in L^1({\mathbb R}^n)$ is the sum of its good part $g$ and bad part $b$.
Since Since $g$ is bounded and belongs to $L^1({\mathbb R}^n)$, it is not hard to verify that $g$ belongs to $L^p({\mathbb R}^n)$ for every $p\ge 1$. But it is easy to see that there exists an $f$ such that the inversion formula of Fourier transform fails for $b$. That is to say, the Calderon-Zygmund decomposition is not the decomposition of $L^1({\mathbb R}^n)$ that I want.