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Unique coupling

For two measurable sets $A,B$, let $p=\mu(A)$ and $q=\nu(B)$. Consider any coupling of a Bernoulli$(p)$ and a Bernoulli$(q)$, say, $C:\{0,1\}^2 \to [0,1]$. Then we can find a coupling $(X,Y)$ of $\mu$...
jlewk's user avatar
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Unique coupling

The only way this can happen is the situation that you described, where at least one of the measures gives full measure to a single point. In fact, the proof below does not require the two Polish ...
Anthony Quas's user avatar
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