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Questions about abstract measure and Lebesgue integral theory. Also concerns such properties as measurability of maps and sets.
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Is that correct $\mathbb R^2\cong\mathbb R$ as measurable spaces? [closed]
Is that correct $R^2\cong R$ as measurable spaces?
If we consider $R$ and $R^2$ with Borel $\sigma$-algebras, is there measurable map from $R$ to $R^2$ with measurable inverse?