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The inequality $\Pi (1-\frac{1}{a_i})^{x_i} \le \Pi (1-\frac{1}{b_j})^{y_j} $ hold? [closed]

Question: Are the properties as follows holds? Version 1: the answer by Bjørn Kjos-Hanssen Let $P$ be a positive integers. We written: $P=$ $a_1^{x_1}a_2^{x_2}...a_n^{x_n}$ $=b_1^{y_1}b_ …
Đào Thanh Oai's user avatar