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Francesco Polizzi
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Why is the inverse of a bijective rational map rational?

Let $f:X\to Y$ be a bijective rational map of an open dense subset $X$ of $\mathbb{C}\times\mathbb{C}$ onto an open dense subset $Y$ of $\mathbb{C}\times\mathbb{C}$. How to prove that the inverse map $f^{-1}:Y\to X$ is rational as well? Could you recommend any exact reference to a theorem which guarantees this?