Skip to main content

All Questions

Filter by
Sorted by
Tagged with
4 votes
1 answer
364 views

Maximal ergodic inequality

A map $f: X \to X$ preserves an ergodic probability $\mu$, i.e., $\mu \circ f^{-1}=\mu$ and for any $\phi: X \to \mathbb{R}$ with $\int \phi d\mu=0$, $$\frac{1}{n} \sum_{i \le n} \phi \circ f^i \to 0 \...
John's user avatar
  • 43
3 votes
2 answers
265 views

Can one realize this as an ergodic process?

Consider the lattice $\mathbb Z^2$ and take iid random variables $Y_e$ on all edges $e$ of the graph. We then define random variables $X_i:=\sum_{e \text{ adjacent to } i}Y_e.$ In other words: For ...
user avatar