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When do Orlicz norms tend to the uniform norm?
It is well known that the $p$-norms tend to the $\infty$-norm, in that if $\lVert f \rVert_q < \infty$ for some $q \ge 1$ then $\lVert f \rVert_p \to \lVert f \rVert_\infty$ as $p \to \infty$. ...
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