Skip to main content

All Questions

Filter by
Sorted by
Tagged with
0 votes
1 answer
189 views

$f=0$ in $H^{-1}(\Omega)$ implies $f=0$ almost everywhere

Does $f=0$ in $H^{-1}(\Omega)=(H^1_0(\Omega))^*$ implies $f=0$ almost everywhere in $\Omega$?
Billal Elhamza's user avatar