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A question on $a_i(n) = a_i(\pi(n)) + a_i(n-\pi(n))$ with $a_i(n) = 1$ for $n \le i$
Let $a_i(n) = a_i(\pi(n)) + a_i(n-\pi(n))$ with $a_i(n) = 1$ for $n \le i$ where $\pi(n)$ is the prime-counting function.
By definition, it is obvious that $a_1(n) = n$ and $a_2(n)$ is https://oeis....