Skip to main content

All Questions

Filter by
Sorted by
Tagged with
6 votes
0 answers
136 views

A particular case of the general converse to the preimage (submanifold) theorem

I was thinking whether it would be possible to develop a converse to the preimage theorem in differential topology and I found the following post: When is a submanifold of $\mathbf R^n$ given by ...
geooranalysis's user avatar
8 votes
0 answers
198 views

A modified version of the converse to the Sard's Theorem

When I learned Sard's Theorem in differential topology by myself, I was thinking whether it would be possible to prove a converse version of the theorem. That is to say, can we somehow show that each (...
pureorapplied's user avatar
2 votes
1 answer
560 views

Collar neighborhood theorem for manifold with corners

I was reading this wonderful sequence of posts: nlab: manifold with boundary and nlab: collar neighbourhood theorem and I couldn't help but wonder. Is there an extension of the Collar neighborhood ...
ABIM's user avatar
  • 5,405
5 votes
1 answer
380 views

Non-density of continuous functions to interior in set of all continuous functions

Let $M$ be an $m$-dimensional manifold and $N$ be an $n$-dimensional manifold. Suppose also that the topology on $N$ can be described by a metric. Thus, the set $C(M,N)$ can be endowed with the ...
ABIM's user avatar
  • 5,405
2 votes
1 answer
301 views

Density of continuous functions to interior in set of all continuous functions

Let $M$ be an $m$-dimensional manifold and $N$ be an $n$-dimensional manifold with boundary. Suppose also that the topology on $N$ can be described by a metric. Thus, the set $C(M,N)$ can be endowed ...
ABIM's user avatar
  • 5,405
5 votes
1 answer
258 views

Generating the topology of a manifold

Let $X$ be a topological manifold of dimension $d$, and let $F$ be a collection of continuous maps from $X$ into $\mathbf{R}^d$ such that: $F$ separates points of $X$, i.e. for any two distinct ...
erz's user avatar
  • 5,529
2 votes
0 answers
305 views

Are homotopy equivalent manifolds with homeomorpic boundaries themselves homeomorphic?

Let $f:M \to M′$ be a homotopy equivalence of topological manifolds with boundary such that $dim(M)=dim(M′)$ and $f:\partial M \to \partial M′$ is a homeomorphism. Does this imply the existence of a ...
Dean Barber's user avatar