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Why $M_1 \subset M_2 \not \Rightarrow N_{M_1} (\lambda) \leq N_{M_2} (\lambda)$ for eigenvalue problem? (EDIT)
We know that for a direct problem with Dirichlet Boundary Condition (with Laplacian operator) that if two domains $M_1$ and $M_2$ are such that $M_1 \subset M_2$, then $\lambda(M_2) \leq \lambda(M_1)$,...
