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Let $f:\mathbb R_+ \times \mathbb R^N \to \mathbb R$ and $$F(x) = \int_0^\infty f(t,x) dt.$$ If $\nabla_x F(0) = 0$ do we have that $\nabla_x f(t,0) = 0$ for all $t \in \mathbb R_+$? If not, which ...