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20 votes
2 answers
1k views

Can There be a 1 dimensional Banach-Tarski paradox in the absence of choice

Let $\mathbb{R}$ act on itself by translation. Then there is no finite decomposition of a unit interval into pieces which, when translated, yields two distinct unit intervals. More formally does ...
Josh F's user avatar
  • 545
11 votes
1 answer
302 views

Without AC, which implications between the different definitions of amenability still hold?

More precisely, I would like to know which implications between the following definitions of amenability of a discrete countable (or even finitely generated) group can be proved to hold with only ZF (...
user56097's user avatar
  • 402
4 votes
1 answer
285 views

Is it compatible with ZF to assume that every amenable discrete group is finite?

The question is in the title, amenability being understood as the existence of a left-invariant finitely additive probability measure on the group of interest. The case of countable groups is treated ...
user56097's user avatar
  • 402