$\newcommand{\triv}{\mathit{triv}}$A group $G$ has property $T$ if $\triv$ is isolated in the space of unitary representations with the Fell topology.
In general, we heuristically have $H^1(G,Ad(V))$ (where $Ad$ is the kernel of $V \otimes V^* \to triv$) is the tangent space to the representation $V$ in the space of representations.
Thus, I'd expect property $T$ is about $H^1(G,\triv) = 0$.
Instead, I've seen in the literature that the $T$ property for a given representation $V$ (i.e., the existence of compact $K \subset G, \epsilon$ uniformly blocking invariant vectors) is equivalent to $H^1(G,V) = 0$.
How does this align with the tangent space intuition?
Edit-
I am rightfully told that I am completely wrong, but I'm okay with that. I'm trying to understand why the heuristic fails, and what is thus the true reason we use $H^1(G,V)$? How does it relate with the trivial representation being isolated.