Suppose $X$ is a random variable taking values in a finite set $\{a_1,\ldots, a_k \}$ and for $i=1,\ldots,k,$ $Y_i = \begin{cases} 1 & \text{if } X=a_i, \\ 0 & \text{otherwise.} \end{cases}$
\begin{align} \text{If } & \operatorname E(\mathbf Y) = \operatorname E\left[ \begin{array}{c} Y_1 \\ \vdots\,\,\, \\ Y_k \end{array} \right] = \left[ \begin{array}{c} p_1 \\ \vdots\,\,\, \\ p_k \end{array} \right] \quad \text{(so that $p_1+\cdots+p_k=1$)} \\[12pt] \text{then } & \operatorname{var}(\mathbf Y) = \operatorname{var}\left[ \begin{array}{c} Y_1 \\ \vdots\,\,\, \\ Y_k \end{array} \right] = \left[ \begin{array}{cccccc} \ddots & \vdots & & \vdots \\ \cdots & p_i(1-p_i) & \cdots & -p_ip_j & \cdots \\ & \vdots & \ddots & \vdots \\ \cdots & -p_i p_j & \cdots & p_j(1-p_j) & \cdots \\ & \vdots & & \vdots & \ddots \end{array} \right]. \end{align} This variance is a $k\times k$ matrix of rank $k-1.$
With an infinite sequence of i.i.d. copies of $\mathbf Y,$ we have a central limit theorem saying that the probability distribution of a suitably centered and rescaled sum of the first $n$ copies of $\mathbf Y$ approaches a normal (or "Gaussian") distribution with the $k\times k$ variance above.
Everybody knows that much, but now suppose we have a countably infinite set $\{a_1,a_2,a_3,\ldots\}$ of values of $X$ with corresponding probabilities $p_1,p_2,p_3,\ldots$ and we define $\mathbf Y$ similarly.
How should we modify our central limit theorem for that case? Might we have pointwise but not uniform convergence to a limiting distribution? If for each $i,$ the distribution of $W_i$ is limiting distribution of the $i\text{th}$ component, would it still be the case that every linear combination $\sum_i c_iW_i$ with constant (i.e. non-random) coefficients $c_i$ would be normally distributed in the limit? Might some conclusions depend on how fast $\sum_ip_i$ converges to $1\text{?}$ Are there published results?