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It is known that an entire function that is nowhere zero must be the exponential of another entire function.

Does this hold for matrix-valued functions as well? That is, given a matrix-valued entire function, none of whose eigenvalues is zero anywhere (save at complex infinity, trivially), is it true that it must be the exponential of another matrix-valued entire function?

I need (not in mathematical sense) this to hold, because (in particular) it would imply that a suitable pointwise branch of "$\ln(e^{K}e^{L})$", $K$ and $L$ being real skew-symmetric matrices, would exist such that it is real analytic w.r.t. the (upper) elements of $K$ and $L$. (I tried to prove this weaker statement using the BCH-D formula with no apparent success)

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  • $\begingroup$ Do you mean an entire function of many variables or of one variable? $\endgroup$ Commented Dec 25, 2023 at 14:34
  • $\begingroup$ Both are intended. $\endgroup$ Commented Dec 25, 2023 at 14:58
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    $\begingroup$ if the determinant of the matrix is nowhere zero, then for fixed $a$ and varying $b \in \mathbb{C}$ the integral $F(b) = \int\limits_a^b A^{-1}(z)dz$ along some fixed choice of path from $a$ to $b$ is well-defined, and should be path-independent. Can we show this is a logarithm? $\endgroup$
    – Vik78
    Commented Dec 25, 2023 at 15:18
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    $\begingroup$ @Vik78: $A^{-1}$ is not the ($z$-)derivative of $\log A(z)$, and when trying to fix that, one runs into issues similar to these: en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Derivative_of_the_exponential_map $\endgroup$ Commented Dec 25, 2023 at 15:54
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    $\begingroup$ @ChristianRemling right, it was a typo on my part. $\endgroup$
    – Vik78
    Commented Dec 25, 2023 at 16:24

2 Answers 2

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Counterexample: Consider the entire function $$ A(z) = \pmatrix{e^z & 0\cr z & 1\cr}$$ An entire logarithm of $A(z)$ must have eigenvalues $z + 2\pi i n$ and $2 \pi i m$ for some (constant) integers $n$ and $m$, with eigenvectors $\pmatrix{(e^z-1)/z\cr 1\cr}$ and $\pmatrix{0\cr 1\cr}$ respectively (for $e^z \ne 1$). Such a matrix must be $$ \pmatrix{z + 2 \pi i n & 0\cr \frac{z^2 + 2 \pi i (n-m) z}{e^z - 1} & 2 \pi i m\cr}$$ But the $(2,1)$ matrix element has a pole at $z = 2\pi i j$ with $j \ne 0, m-n$, so this doesn't work.

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  • $\begingroup$ Looks like "proof by counterexample" to me... $\endgroup$ Commented Dec 25, 2023 at 18:23
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    $\begingroup$ Yes, it is a counterexample. $\endgroup$ Commented Dec 25, 2023 at 18:24
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    $\begingroup$ This is a nice simple argument. I had a slightly more complicated one, which however shows that there almost never will be an entire matrix logarithm: The eigenvalues $\lambda_j$ of $A$ will typically have Puiseux type branch points and hence so will those of $B$ (call them $\mu_j=\log\lambda_j$), but then $\prod\mu_j=\det B$ would have to be entire, which is unlikely. $\endgroup$ Commented Dec 25, 2023 at 18:54
  • $\begingroup$ It does not seem to show that all logarithms of A(z) are non-entire... $\endgroup$ Commented Dec 26, 2023 at 6:31
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    $\begingroup$ Why don't you think it shows that? $\endgroup$ Commented Dec 26, 2023 at 16:16
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This is my comment above slightly expanded. Let's focus on $2\times 2$ matrices for convenience and let $A(z)$ be entire with $\det A=1$ (divide through by a holomorphic square root of $\det A$ if this doesn't hold initially, and recall that $\sqrt{\det A(z)}\not= 0$ does have an entire scalar logarithm).

If $A(z)=e^{B(z)}$, then $e^{\textrm{tr}\: B}=1$, so $\textrm{tr}\: B(z)\equiv 2\pi in$, and by replacing $B$ with $B-i\pi n$ (and perhaps $A$ with $-A$), we can then also assume that $\textrm{tr}\: B=0$.

The eigenvalues of $A$ are $\lambda(z)=T(z)/2 \pm (1/2)\sqrt{T^2(z)-4}$, $T(z)=\textrm{tr}\: A(z)$. These are typically not entire, but only have Puiseux series expansions about the points $z_0$ with $T(z_0)=\pm 2$. As a consequence, $$ \det B(z)=\log\lambda\cdot\log 1/\lambda =-\log^2\lambda(z) $$ will usually be prevented from being holomorphic near such points $z_0$, and hence there is no entire matrix logarithm.

Concrete examples where this happens are now easy to find. For example $$ A(z) = \begin{pmatrix} 1 & z\\ 1 & 1+z\end{pmatrix} $$ works (and the problematic points are $z_0=0, -3$), or of course the example given by Robert, which in normalized form is $$ A(z) = \begin{pmatrix} e^{z/2} & 0\\ ze^{-z/2} & e^{-z/2} \end{pmatrix} , $$ and here $\textrm{tr}\: A=\pm 2$ when $e^{z/2}=\pm 1$, consistent with Robert's calculation.

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