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Let $p$ be a prime. Is there a classification of the numbers $k \geq 1$ such that $\gcd(k,p^k-1)=1$? If not, can we at least produce an explicit infinite subset? What is known about these $k$?

For the lack of a better name, let me call $k$ good for $p$ if $\gcd(k,p^k-1)=1$. Many numbers are good for $p=2$. This seems to be related but not identical to the OEIS sequence A049093. If $p>2$, all good numbers for $p$ are odd. Most odd numbers are good for $3$; for $k \leq 1000$ the only $24$ exceptions are 39, 55, 117, 165, 195, 253, 273, 275, 351, 385, 429, 495, 507, 585, 605, 663, 715, 741, 759, 819, 825, 897, 935, 975. There is no OEIS sequence for these. For $p=5$ it is similar, but for $p > 5$ the story becomes different.

Background. I have found an equational proof that $p^k$-rings with $p=0$ are commutative when $\gcd(k,p^k-1)=1$ (see Equational proofs of Jacobson's Theorem). Now, I wonder how many cases I have already covered.

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    $\begingroup$ It would be nicer if your name "good" actually involved the prime $p$, e.g., "$p$-good". $\endgroup$
    – KConrad
    Commented Oct 3, 2023 at 22:40
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    $\begingroup$ @KConrad done ! $\endgroup$ Commented Oct 3, 2023 at 23:15
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    $\begingroup$ "... if this question turns out to be stupid." -- actually, the question is fine, and only the final words about "... stupid" were not smart (I've up-voted this Q. anyway :-) ). $\endgroup$
    – Wlod AA
    Commented Oct 3, 2023 at 23:21
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    $\begingroup$ @WlodAA removed! $\endgroup$ Commented Oct 4, 2023 at 9:15

1 Answer 1

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It is easier to describe non-good (bad) numbers with respect to a given prime $p$. For each such number $k$, there exists a prime $q$ such that $q\mid k$ and $q\mid (p^k - 1)$. It follows that $k$ is multiple of $m_p(q):=q\cdot \mathrm{ord}_q(p)$, where $\mathrm{ord}_q(p)$ is the multiplicative order of $p$ modulo $q$ (which is a divisor of $q-1$). Hence, the set of bad $k$ is formed by the union $$\bigcup_{q\in\mathbb{P}\atop q\ne p} m_p(q) \mathbb{N}^+.$$

UPDATE#2. It also follows that

  • for any odd $k$, there exists a prime $p$ such that $k$ is good for $p$;

  • any even $k$ is bad for all primes $p\geq 3$ since $2\mid \gcd(k,p^k-1)$;

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    $\begingroup$ A nice answer. ###### BTW, instead of p-non-good name, more logical and much nicer would be name p-bad. $\endgroup$
    – Wlod AA
    Commented Oct 3, 2023 at 23:05
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    $\begingroup$ Very nice! What can we then say about the density of the bad numbers? $\endgroup$ Commented Oct 3, 2023 at 23:17
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    $\begingroup$ @WlodAA: I've changed non-good to bad per popular request :) $\endgroup$ Commented Oct 3, 2023 at 23:37
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    $\begingroup$ @MaxAlekseyev what are uniformly bad numbers? You mean for all p? $\endgroup$ Commented Oct 4, 2023 at 9:22
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    $\begingroup$ @MartinBrandenburg: Yes, prime $2$ "destroys" the nice picture. I was keeping it out of play, and my update#1 was wrong in that respect. Please see update#2. $\endgroup$ Commented Oct 5, 2023 at 13:38

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