Crossposted from math.stackexchange since there are no answers there.
Consider the sequence $a_k$ of $3$-smooth numbers (see OEIS A003586), i.e. the elements of:
$$S = \{ 2^i 3^j : i,j \ge 0 \}$$
in increasing order.
Further define:
$$ [a_n]! = \prod_{k = 1}^n a_k$$
Similarly to the property $\frac{(m+n)!}{m!n!} \in \mathbb{Z}$, is the following statement true:
$$\frac{[a_{m+n}]!}{[a_m]![a_n]!} \in S$$
and if so, how is it possible to prove it? And then, is it possible to generalize it to any couple of prime numbers other than $2$ and $3$?
Note, that in general the property does not always hold for $n$-smooth numbers. For example, given the sequence $b_k$ of $5$-smooth numbers, $[b_{17}]!$ is not a multiple of $[b_2]![b_{15}]!$ (from a comment in the original post).