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I am trying to understand Weierstrass subdomains of $\Spm\DeclareMathOperator\QP{\mathbb{Q}_p}\QP$.

Recall that a Weierstrass algebra of an affinoid space $\Spm A$, where $A$ is a Banach algebra with norm $|\cdot|$, associated to an $n$-tuple $(a_1,...,a_n)\in A^n$ is the relative Tate algebra:

$$A\langle X_1,...,X_n\rangle/(X_1-a_1, ..., X_n - a_n)$$

where $A\langle X\rangle = \sum_{n\ge 0}a_nX^n$, where $|a_n|\longrightarrow 0$ as $n\longrightarrow 0$. More generally one has to work with multi-indices.

The Weierstrass algebra associated to an $n$-tuple $(a_1,...,a_n)$ is nothing but $A\langle a_1,...,a_n\rangle$.

The natural map $A \longrightarrow A\langle a_1,...,a_n\rangle$ induces a map on the max spectra in the opposite direction, $M(A\langle a_1,...,a_n\rangle)\longrightarrow M(A)$, and in Conrad's "several approaches to ...", he says that the image of $M(A\langle a_1,...,a_n\rangle)$ inside $M(A)$ consists of points $x\in M(A)$ for which $|a_i(x)|\le 1$ for all $1\le i\le n$.

Consider the case $A = \QP$, and the Weierstrass algebra associated to the $1$-tuple $1/p$, i.e. $\QP\langle 1/p\rangle$. One could show very easily that as abstract rings,

$$\QP\langle 1/p\rangle \cong \sum_{n=-\infty}^{\infty}a_np^n,\quad a_n\in [0,p-1].$$

This ring is a field, hence $M(\QP\langle 1/p\rangle) = \{0\}$. Similarly $M(\QP) = \{0\}$, so the map on spectra sends $\{0\} \in M(\QP\langle 1/p\rangle)$ to $\{0\}\in M(\QP)$, and by Conrad's claim, it should be the case that $|1/p(0)| \le 1$, but the value of $1/p$ in the residue field $\QP/(0)$ is $1/p$, and the Banach norm on $\QP$ is the $p$-adic norm, so that the statement of Conrad implies that $|1/p|_p \le 1$, while clearly $|1/p|_p > 1$.

What am I missing?

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    $\begingroup$ The problem is with your computation of $\mathbb{Q}_p\langle 1/p \rangle$. This is actually the ring $0$. It is obtained by moding out $\mathbb{Q}_p\langle X \rangle$ by the ideal generated by $X-1/p$, but the element $X-1/p = (1-pX)\times (-1/p)$ is invertible. $\endgroup$ Commented Feb 3, 2023 at 15:50
  • $\begingroup$ Thank you very much. Indeed I only proven that there is a map $\mathbb{Q}_p[[1/p]]\longrightarrow \mathbb{Q}_p\langle 1/p\rangle$, and didn't bother checking that it is injective/bijective because I thought it was obvious, however, indeed, there is an element $\infty = 1 + p\cdot \frac{1}{p} + p^2\cdot \frac{1}{p^2} + ...$ which lives in the target that doesn't live in the source, since it is the inverse of $0$, which is $1 - p\cdot \frac{1}{p}$, the target is indeed the 0 ring. Thank you so much! $\endgroup$
    – kindasorta
    Commented Feb 3, 2023 at 16:23

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