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I am working on $\mathbb{R}^4$ with the sign convention $(1,-1,-1,-1)$.

I wonder if there is Schwartz function $f(x)$ on $\mathbb{R}^4$ such that the support satisfies the condition $0<x^2 < 4m^2$ for some given positive constant $m$.

Here $x^2$ is of course with respect to the above metric, and $x=(x_0,x_1,x_2,x_3)$.

The first idea that comes to me is a function of the form \begin{equation} f(x)=g(x^2) \end{equation} where $g : \mathbb{R} \to \mathbb{R}$ is the smooth function defined by $g(t):=e^{-\frac{1}{4m^2-t}-\frac{1}{t}}$ for $0<t<4m^2$ and $0$ otherwise.

However, such $f$ does not show decay in the case $\lvert x_1 \rvert \to \infty$ while $x^2=2m^2$ and as a result $\sup_{x \in \mathbb{R}^4} \lvert x_1 f(x) \rvert = \infty$.

I wonder if there exists a Schwartz function with causal support. Moreover, it would be better if $f(\Lambda x) =f(x)$ for all elements $\Lambda$ of the restricted Lorentz group.

Could anyone please provide an example?

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    $\begingroup$ I think I must not understand the question correctly in the Lorentz-invariant case. This invariance implies that $f$ is constant on the positive-time half of any hyperboloid $x^2=k$. Any such hyperboloid extends to arbitrarily large coordinate values, so $f$ can't tend to $0$ at large coordinate values unless it's identically $0$. $\endgroup$ Commented Jan 28, 2023 at 23:24
  • $\begingroup$ Ignoring the Lorentz invariance (which is impossible by what Andreas Blass said), are you looking for a Schwartz function that is non-zero EXACTLY on the set $0 < x_0^2 - x_1^2 - x_2^2 - x_3^3 < 4m^2$? $\endgroup$ Commented Jan 29, 2023 at 4:35
  • $\begingroup$ Yes, that is right. I was mistaken about Lorentz invariance. $\endgroup$
    – Isaac
    Commented Jan 29, 2023 at 14:23

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If Lorentz invariance is not required:

Let $\phi$ be any smooth bump function $\phi:\mathbb{R}\to\mathbb{R}$ that is non-zero precisely on $(0,4m^2)$ (including the one you used in the question statement).

Let $f:\mathbb{R}^4\to \mathbb{R}$ be given by

$$ f(x_0, x_1, x_2, x_3) = \phi(x_0^2 - x_1^2 - x_2^2 - x_3^2) \exp(-x_0^2 - x_1^2 - x_2^3 - x_3^3) $$

Since the Gaussian term is nowhere vanishing, $f$ has the desired support property.

Since $\phi$ is a smooth bump function, there is a sequence of numbers $M_k$ such that $|\phi^{(k)}| \leq M_k$. This shows that the $k$th order partial derivatives of $f$ are uniformly bounded by a $k$th degree polynomial in $(x_0, x_1, x_2, x_3)$ times the Gaussian, which shows that $f$ is Schwartz.

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