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A Lie ring is a triple $(G,+, [\ ,\ ]),$ where $(G,+)$ is an abelian group and $ [\ ,\ ]$ is a bilinear map satisfying

  • $[x,x]=0$
  • $[\ ,\ ]$ is bilinear
  • $[[x,y],z]+[[y,z],x]+[[z.x],y]=0,\ \forall\ x,y,z\in G.$ (Jacobi identity).

The center of the Lie ring is defined as $$Z(G)=\{x\ |\ [x,y]=0,\ \forall\ y\in G\}.$$

Let $(G,+, [\ ,\ ])$ be a Lie ring with free presentation $$0\rightarrow R\rightarrow F\rightarrow G\rightarrow 1.$$ Now consider the quotient Lie ring $\tilde{F}=\frac{F}{R\cap [F,F]}$ and $\tilde{R}=\frac{R}{R\cap [F,F]}$. Then the subring $Z(\tilde{F})\cap [\tilde{F},\tilde{F}]$ of $Z(\tilde{F})$ has a complement subring in $Z(\tilde{F})$, i.e. there exists an ideal $\tilde{T}$ of $Z(\tilde{F})$ such that $$Z(\tilde{F})=Z(\tilde{F})\cap [\tilde{F},\tilde{F}]\times \tilde{T}.$$

My question is: $\textbf{How such an ideal $\tilde{T}$ exists?}$

I have seen in the article Isoclinism in pair of Lie rings that authors have taken as assumption that if $\tilde{x}=x+[R,F]\in\frac{F}{[R,F]} $ such that $\tilde{x}^n\in \frac{[F,F]}{[R,F]}$ for some integer $n\in \mathbb{N}$ then $\tilde{x}\in \frac{[F,F]}{[R,F]}$ and assumed that this holds. Using this assumption they claimed following two points:

$(1)$ The factor Lie ring $\frac{Z(\tilde{F})}{Z(\tilde{F})\cap [\tilde{F},\tilde{F}]}$ is isomorphic to some ideal of the free abelian Lie ring $\frac{\tilde{F}}{[\tilde{F},\tilde{F}]}$

$(2)$ There exists an ideal $\tilde{T}$ of $\tilde{F}$ such that $$Z(\tilde{F})=Z(\tilde{F})\cap [\tilde{F},\tilde{F}]\times \tilde{T}.$$

It can be seen that the second claim can be obtained from the first one, but I am not able to see the first one. Please guide me in this regard.

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    $\begingroup$ What do you mean by $\tilde{x}^n$? I don't what the $n$-power could mean in a Lie ring. $\endgroup$
    – YCor
    Commented Sep 28, 2022 at 10:34
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    $\begingroup$ Thanks, so it means $n\tilde{x}$, to be consistent with the additive notation. $\endgroup$
    – YCor
    Commented Sep 28, 2022 at 10:43
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    $\begingroup$ This is helpful to understand the question at least. I'll think about it now. $\endgroup$
    – YCor
    Commented Sep 28, 2022 at 10:47
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    $\begingroup$ I think that the whole point is that $F/[F,F]$ is a torsion-free group. It is more practical to work inside $F$ itself. If $x\in F$, the condition $nx\in [F,F]+[F,R]$ just means $nx\in [F,F]$. And $[F,F]+[F,R]=[F,F]$. Since $F/[F,F]$ is torsion-free, this implies $x\in [F,F]$. $\endgroup$
    – YCor
    Commented Sep 28, 2022 at 10:50
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    $\begingroup$ Could you clarify in your post what exactly the question is. $\endgroup$
    – YCor
    Commented Sep 28, 2022 at 12:54

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