Ramanujan graphs are defined as $(q+1)$-regular graphs for which all nontrivial eigenvalues of the adjacency operator are contained in the interval $$[-2\sqrt{q}, 2\sqrt{q}].$$ The reason for this definition is that this interval is precisely the spectrum of the adjacency operator on the universal cover of these regular graphs, i.e. the infinite $(q+1)$-regular tree. There are quick ways to see heuristically why the spectral radius should be $2\sqrt{q}$: it follows from the number of closed walks of lenght $2n$ in the tree being approximately $(4q)^n$ (see this answer).
We can extend the notion of Ramanujan graphs to $(q_1+1, q_2+1)$-biregular graphs (i.e. bipartite graphs such that every vertex in the first side of the bipartition has degree $q_1+1$ and every vertex in the second side has degree $q_2+1$). Following Zeta Functions of Finite Graphs and Representations of $p$-Adic Groups by Hashimoto, we can define biregular Ramanujan graphs to be those for which all nontrivial eigenvalues of the adjacency operator lie in $$\left[-\sqrt{q_1}-\sqrt{q_2}, -\left|\sqrt{q_1}-\sqrt{q_2}\right|\right]\cup \left[\left|\sqrt{q_1}-\sqrt{q_2}\right|,\sqrt{q_1}+\sqrt{q_2}\right].$$ This can be explained by this union of intervals (together with $\{0\}$) being exactly the spectrum of the adjacency operator on the universal cover, the $(q_1+1, q_2+1)$-biregular tree. I understand how one can prove that this is indeed the spectrum (and even calculate the spectral measure) by finding the walk generating function and using inversion formulas to find the measure with that particular moment generating function (this is done for example in this paper by Godsil and Mohar). However, the bounds for the spectrum just seem to pop out of nowhere at the end of the calculation, so I am looking for a more conceptual explanation. The spectral radius $\sqrt{q_1}+\sqrt{q_2}$ can be explained by approximating the number of closed walks as in the regular case, but I don't see heuristically why the spectrum isn't just an interval centered at the origin but instead has a gap in the middle. Hence my question:
What is a conceptual explanation for this "gap" in the middle of the spectrum if the biregular tree, which doesn't appear in the regular case?