I think the following inequality might be true and was hoping somebody might spot it or know a proof:
Suppose $f:\mathbb R\to \mathbb R$ is convex and suitably nice so that $$\int_{\mathbb R} e^{-f(x)} dx = 1$$ Then is it true that $$\int_{\mathbb R} f(x) e^{-f(x)} dx\ge 0$$ ?
I also wonder what area of mathematics this might fit into or be a baby case of (perhaps the theory of logarithmically concave distributions)?
Thanks in advance.