For example,
- For what $C^*$ algebras $A$ is unitary equivalence the same as mvn equivalence for projections.
- For what $C^*$ algebras $A$ is unitary equivalence the same as homotopy equivalence for projections.
- For what $C^*$ algebras $A$ is unitary equivalence the same as approximate unitary equivalence
Of course it's already known that $p \sim_h q \implies p \sim_u q \implies p \sim_{mvn} q$, so I suppose my question is when do we have implications in the other direction. One thing I've already noticed is that for (some nontrivial) classes of $C^*$ algebras there are so few projections that this line of questioning is meaningless.
So far I've seen remarkably few results contrasting the different types of projections, and the only well-known result I've seen is that if $A$ is unital then $p \sim_u q \iff p \sim_{mvn} q $ and $ 1-p \sim_{mvn} 1-q$.
I'm aware this might be a bit of a weird/unnatural question to ask. It's definitely quite "operator first", which is probably a feature of someone that's been reading a lot of Davidson's book recently! This is just because I'm still at the stage of my Ph.D. of asking questions that aren't necessarily interesting. I would equally be interested in hearing about why or why not there is not so much interest in these types of questions.
I feel thinking about these questions might help deepen my understanding/appreciation of the construction of $K_0$... I suppose it's true that if we had mvn equivalence in some $M_n(A)$, we can blow it up to a larger matrix (would it be respectively $M_{2n}, M_{4n}$?) such that we have unitary/homotopy equivalence. Is this why people don't generally look at what distinguishes these equivalence at the level of $A$?