Sorry if this turns out to be a silly question, but I am having difficulties in both understanding it and finding other references for it. I hope that someone can clear my concepts here on overflow.
Recently, I am reading the book "Degenerate Complex Monge-Ampère Equations" by Guedj and Zeriahi and having some confusion which I cannot find any references for.
In chapter 1, section 1.2.3, it is stated that if $u\in SH(\Omega)$, where $SH(\Omega)$ denotes the set of subharmonic functions over a domain $\Omega\subset\mathbb C$, then the distribution $\Delta u\geq 0$ is a nonnegative distribution. My first question is that why is the laplacian of $u$ a distribution. (From my understanding, a distribution is supposed to be a continuous linear functional from the space of compactly supported smooth functions to $\mathbb C$. Then I do not understand why is $\Delta u$ a distribution.)
On the next page, the authors further define the Riesz measure of $u\in SH(\Omega)$ by $\mu_u:=\frac{1}{2\pi}\Delta u$. I am not sure how does it become a measure. (From my understanding, a measure is supposed to act on subsets of $\Omega$, then I do not understand how $\Delta u$ can be regarded as a measure.)
I would be very grateful if someone could explain the missing linkages between them or could provide me with some references on possibly the theory of distribution. Thank you.