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Let $u(x,y)$ be a smooth function on the square $S:=[0, 1] \times [0, 1]$ (see, for example, Wiki for the definitions) and $\varepsilon > 0$.

Is it possible to approximate $u(x,y)$ by a function $h(x,y)$ harmonic on $S$ s.t. $$\max_{(x,y)\in S} |u(x,y)-h(x,y)|\le \varepsilon ? $$

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    $\begingroup$ No. If it approximates smooth function within $\varepsilon$, take a sphere, say centered at $(1/2, 1/2)$ of radius $1/3$ completely inside the square. Then mean value equality (over spheres) implies that the value of $h(1/2)$ must be within $\varepsilon$ of $u$'s integral average over the sphere whereas $u(1/2)$ can be any arbitrary number, contradiction. $\endgroup$ Commented Apr 28, 2020 at 17:57
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    $\begingroup$ also, uniform limits of harmonic functions are harmonic functions! $\endgroup$ Commented Apr 28, 2020 at 18:03
  • $\begingroup$ @Paata Ivanishvili: Sorry, I don't see any contradiction. Can you elaborate your comment as an answer? $\endgroup$
    – user64494
    Commented Apr 28, 2020 at 18:11
  • $\begingroup$ @leo monsaingeon: Can you elaborate your comment as an answer, giving, in particular, a reference to us? $\endgroup$
    – user64494
    Commented Apr 28, 2020 at 18:14
  • $\begingroup$ @Paata Ivanishvili: I got it. In order to accept it, can you elaborate your comment as an answer, constructing a counter-example? TIA. $\endgroup$
    – user64494
    Commented Apr 28, 2020 at 18:32

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No, this is not possible because (locally) uniform limits of harmonic functions are harmonic so the limit $u=\lim\limits_{\epsilon\to 0} h_\epsilon$ would have to be harmonic to start with.

Well, I guess it depends on what one means by "harmonic", but at least in the flat Euclidean setting there is no amibguity. In this basic setting the fact that uniform limits of harmonic functions are harmonic immediately follows from the standard characterization of harmonic functions by the mean-value property (which is trivially stable under uniform limits).

A counterexample is therefore given by any non-harmonic smooth function. (I will not insult MO's readership by giving an explicit such function!)

Think of it like this: In dimension 1 harmonic functions are affine, and clearly it is impossible to approximate an arbitrary smooth function uniformly (or in any reasonable topology, for that matters) by sequences of affine functions. Going to higher dimensions does not help with the "approximability".

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