The Riesz Thorin theorem allows us to interpolate between $L^p$ spaces and the usual assumption is that the map $T$ is linear.
What I was wondering about is whether this is because otherwise you do not know what $T$ on the interpolated spaces shall be or whether this is an intrinsic property of the theorem?
That's why I ask: Assume that the measure space is of finite measure and you interpolate a map $T:L^p \rightarrow L^p$ that is bounded but non-linear such that $T\vert_{L^q}: L^q \rightarrow L^q$ is also bounded and $q>p.$
Does this imply that $T$ restricts to a bounded map on any $L^r$ with $r \in (p,q)$ and an estimate on the operator norm is given by the Riesz-Thorin interpolation theorem?