Let $f\colon (0,1)\to \mathbb{R}$ be a function continuous on the right, i.e. for any $a\in(0,1)$ one has $\lim_{x\to a+0}f(x)=f(a)$.
Is it true that $f$ is measurable?
I apologize if this question is too elementary for this site.
$\begingroup$
$\endgroup$
1
-
5$\begingroup$ math.stackexchange.com/questions/177917/… $\endgroup$– Michael GreineckerCommented May 9, 2017 at 12:22
Add a comment
|