Let $f\colon X\times \mathbb{R}\to X, (x,\varepsilon)\mapsto y$, with $X$ open, be a continuous function in both arguments. Consider the following fixed-point iteration \begin{align} x_{k+1} = f(x_k,\varepsilon),\quad x_0\in X.\quad (\star) \end{align} Assume that the above iteration converges to a (possibly different, depending on $\varepsilon$) point $x_{\varepsilon}^*\in X$ contained in an open and connected set consisting of (a subset of) fixed points of $f(\cdot,0)$, say $\mathcal{E}$, for all $\varepsilon\in(0,1]$ and for all $x_0\in X$.
My question. If I know that for $\varepsilon=0$, $(\star)$ also converges to a fixed point of $f(\cdot,0)$ for all $x_0\in X$, can I conclude that, in this case, $(\star)$ converges to the closure of $\mathcal{E}$, i.e. $\overline{\mathcal{E}}$, for all $x_0\in X$? If not, which kind of assumptions do I need to arrive at such a conclusion?
Any comment and/or reference is very welcome.
A different setting.
Assume that, for all $x_0\in X$ and for all $\varepsilon\in(0,1]$, iteration $(\star)$ converges to the set of fixed points of $f(x_k,\varepsilon)$, say $\mathcal{F}_{\varepsilon}$, which corresponds to a closed and connected subset of the set of fixed points of $f(\cdot,0)$. Assume moreover that $\mathcal{F}_{\varepsilon_1}\subset \mathcal{F}_{\varepsilon_2}$ for every $\varepsilon_1> \varepsilon_2$.
My question (revised). If I know that for $\varepsilon=0$, $(\star)$ also converges to a fixed point of $f(\cdot,0)$ for all $x_0\in X$, can I conclude that $(\star)$ converges to the closure of $\mathcal{F}_{0^+}$ for all $x_0\in X$?