Let $x,y \in \mathbb{Z}$ satisfying $3y^2 = 4x^3 - 1$. Does it follow that $x = 1$ and $y = \pm 1$?
Wolfram Alpha says that the answer is positive, but I am not so satisfied with an answer by a computer program since it is (most of the time) not accompanied by a proof, and even if it is, such a proof may be rather long, not illuminating, and difficult to verify.
What I would like to see most is a (reasonably short and complete) proof (or a counterexample).
I have used unique factorization in $\mathbb{Z}[\frac{-1 + \sqrt{-3}}{2}]$to show that it suffices to prove that the only $a,b \in \mathbb{Z}$ satisfying $a^3 + b^3 -6a^2b + 3ab^2 + 1 = 0$ are $(-1,0), \ (0,-1), \ (1,1)$ and verified this using Wolfram Alpha, but I am not sure whether this gets me any closer to a proof.