I'm studying the following limit
$$\lim_{n\to \infty} \frac{1}{n} \ln\left( \frac{(n+1)!_\mathbb{P}}{n^n}\right) $$
where $$(n+1)!_\mathbb{P} = \prod\limits_{p \in \mathbb{P}}^{} {p}^{\omega_p{(n)}},$$
where $\omega_p{(n)} = \sum_{k \geq 0} \left\lfloor \frac{n}{(p-1)p^k} \right\rfloor$, and $\mathbb{P}$ is the set of primes. Here's what I have so far:
Before we take the limit, we can rewrite this as
$$\frac{1}{n} \ln\left( \frac{(n+1)!_\mathbb{P}}{n^n}\right) = \frac{\ln (n+1)!_\mathbb{P}}{n} - \ln(n) $$
$$= \frac{1}{n}\sum_{p \in \mathbb{P}}\sum_{k=0}^\infty \ln p \left\lfloor \frac{n}{(p-1)p^k} \right\rfloor - \ln n$$
Using the property $ \left\lfloor x \right\rfloor + \left\lfloor y \right\rfloor\leq \left\lfloor x+y \right\rfloor$ (which I will assume holds over infinite sums, in spite of possible convergence issues), we have the inner sum such that
$$\sum_{k=0}^\infty \left\lfloor \frac{n}{(p-1)p^k} \right\rfloor \leq \left\lfloor \frac{n}{p-1}\sum_{k=0}^\infty\frac{1}{p^k} \right\rfloor = \left\lfloor \frac{n}{p-1} + \frac{n}{(p-1)^2} \right\rfloor$$
Thus, we have
$$ \frac{1}{n}\sum_{p \in \mathbb{P}}\sum_{k=0}^\infty \ln p \left\lfloor \frac{n}{(p-1)p^k} \right\rfloor - \ln n \leq \frac{1}{n}\sum_{p \in \mathbb{P}} \ln p \left\lfloor \frac{n}{p-1} + \frac{n}{(p-1)^2} \right\rfloor - \ln n$$
Now the next step I'm not so sure about; we assume we can do the following to the sum
$$\frac{1}{n}\sum_{p \in \mathbb{P}} \ln p \left\lfloor \frac{n}{p-1} + \frac{n}{(p-1)^2} \right\rfloor - \ln n $$
$$= \frac{1}{n}\left(\sum_{p \leq n} + \sum_{p > n } \right)\ln p \left\lfloor \frac{n}{p-1} + \frac{n}{(p-1)^2} \right\rfloor - \ln n $$
$$= \frac{1}{n}\sum_{p \leq n}\ln p \left\lfloor \frac{n}{p-1} + \frac{n}{(p-1)^2} \right\rfloor - \ln n + \frac{1}{n}\sum_{p > n } \ln p \left\lfloor \frac{n}{p-1} + \frac{n}{(p-1)^2} \right\rfloor$$
For simplicity sake, we denote $$ S_n = \frac{1}{n}\sum_{p > n } \ln p \left\lfloor \frac{n}{p-1} + \frac{n}{(p-1)^2} \right\rfloor$$
Now, using the identity $\left\lfloor x \right\rfloor \leq x$, we have
$$ = \frac{1}{n}\sum_{p \leq n}\ln p \left\lfloor \frac{n}{p-1} + \frac{n}{(p-1)^2} \right\rfloor - \ln n + S_n \leq \sum_{p \leq n} \frac{\ln p}{p-1} + \frac{\ln p}{(p-1)^2} - \ln n + S_n $$
Now we take the limit; using the following Euler-Mascheroni constant identity $$\gamma = \lim_{n \to \infty} \left( \ln n - \sum_{p \le n} \frac{ \ln p }{ p-1 } \right)$$
We have
$$\lim_{n\to \infty} \frac{1}{n} \ln\left( \frac{(n+1)!_\mathbb{P}}{n^n}\right) \leq \lim_{n \to \infty} \sum_{p \leq n} \frac{\ln p}{p-1} + \frac{\ln p}{(p-1)^2} - \ln n + S_n $$
$$ = C-\gamma + \lim_{n \to \infty} S_n$$
where $C = \sum_{p \in \mathbb{P}} \frac{\ln p}{(p-1)^2}$. Assuming $ \lim_{n \to \infty} S_n = 0$, we have that for large $n$,
$$(n+1)!_\mathbb{P} \approx e^{n(C-\gamma)}n^n$$
which is pretty neat. I have a few questions now
$$ \text{1) How can we prove/disprove} \lim_{n \to \infty} S_n = 0 \text{?}$$ $$ \text{2) Is the step that I'm insecure about allowed?}$$
Thank you for your patience, I really appreciate the support.