Let $M$ be a compact Riemannian manifold and $V=L^2(M)$. Let $\Delta$ be the negative-definite Laplacian. Let $f \in V$ and $x \in M$ be arbitrary, but fixed.
Is it true that ${\rm Re} \ (\Delta f) (x) \overline {f (x)} \le 0$? (This is the result of a chain of calculations that is not relevant to this question. $\rm{Re}$ is the real part.)
In its support, I have two arguments that lend it some plausibility:
1) if $f \in V$ is an eigenfunction of the Laplacian, the conjecture is true. In fact, it is true for arbitrary complex multiples of such eigenfunctions.
2) if $F(x) = {\rm Re} \ (\Delta f) (x) \overline {f (x)}$, then $\int \limits _M F(x) \ \Bbb d x = {\rm Re} \int \limits _M (\Delta f) (x) \overline {f (x)} \ \Bbb d x = - {\rm Re} \int \limits _M \| \nabla f \| ^2 \ \Bbb d x \le 0$, which suggests that there exist points $x$ where the expression is indeed negative - but are they "many" or "few"?
As a side-note, if the conjecture can be proven for some space other than $L^2(M)$, I shall still be happy.