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Let $M$ be a complete Riemannian manifold. Is it always true that the subspace $C^2_b(M)\cap W^{2,p}(M)$ is dense in $W^{2, p}(M)$, where $C^2_b(M)$ denotes the space of functions that are uniformly bounded together with their first two derivatives. Or do we need assumptions on the curvature of $M$?

If the curvature is bounded, then it is (somewhat) well-known that $C^\infty_c(M)$ is dense in $W^{2, p}(M)$, hence in particular the space $C^2_b(M)\cap W^{2,p}(M)$. But what if we drop this assumption?

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  • $\begingroup$ Why is $C^2_b \subset W^{2,p}$? $\endgroup$
    – Deane Yang
    Commented Dec 29, 2014 at 6:22
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    $\begingroup$ Sorry, I meant to write $\cap$ instead of $\subset$... $\endgroup$ Commented Dec 29, 2014 at 9:16

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