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I've been trying to prove that the following equation has a unique solution in interval 0 < x < 1 :

$$ x = \Big(\frac{1 - (1-x^2)^K}{1 - (1-x)^K}\Big)^2 $$

Where K is a number (integer, if it helps) greater than 1. I have checked it numerically and, in addition to x=0 and x=1, there is always a solution in interval (0,1). (for instance, see this for K=6: http://goo.gl/a7OSSn) Does anyone have any idea of how I can prove the existence and uniqueness of such a fixed point?

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    $\begingroup$ Suvrit, $x\mapsto x^2$ sends (0, 1) to (0, 1) yet has no fixed point in that interval, so I don't understand your comment. $\endgroup$ Commented Sep 13, 2014 at 20:19
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    $\begingroup$ Why the votes to close? Is there a simple argument for uniqueness that some of us are missing? $\endgroup$ Commented Sep 13, 2014 at 22:19
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    $\begingroup$ @MichaelRenardy I agree; despite the fact that the language needed to ask the question is elementary, the problem doesn't look trivial. $\endgroup$ Commented Sep 13, 2014 at 22:21
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    $\begingroup$ I'm curious, why the restriction to integral $K$? It'd be interesting to see what happens to the fixed point(s) as $K$ varies continuously. $\endgroup$ Commented Sep 13, 2014 at 22:56
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    $\begingroup$ If $K$ is reasonably large then the fixed point seems very close to $K^{-2/3}$ -- even for $K=6$ this is a pretty close approximation. Some asymptotic analysis around here (which might be unpleasant but straightforward) should settle the issue -- first show that the fixed points have to be reasonably close to $K^{-2/3}$ and then use the derivative to check uniqueness. $\endgroup$
    – Lucia
    Commented Sep 14, 2014 at 16:19

1 Answer 1

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Consider the function $f(x):=(1-(1-x)^k)^2 $, a strictly increasing homeo of $ (0,1)$ onto itself, with $f'(0)=f'(1)=0$. Looking at the sign of $f''$ we see that $f$ is initially strictly convex, then strictly concave (the inflection point being at $1-\big(\frac{k-1}{2k-1}\big)^{1/k}$). This implies that $f(x)/x=f'(x)$ has a unique solution $x_0$ in $(0,1)$, and in fact this means that $g(x):=f(x)/x$ is unimodal (with $g(0)=0$, $g(1)=1$, and maximum point at $x_0$). Finally, the initial equation can be written as $g(x)=g(x^2)$, which of course has a unique solution $x=c\in(0,1)$ due to the unmorality of $g$, in fact $0< c^2 < x_0 < c <1 $.

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edit. Incidentally, the same computation works for the generalization suggested by guest in a comment : $x=\frac{ (1-(1-x^{a+1})^b )^c }{ (1-(1-x^a)^b )^c }$, with $a>0, b>1, c>1:$ we can write it in the form $g(x^{a+1})=g(x^a)$ with $g(x):=f(x)/x$ and $f(x):=(1-(1-x )^b )^c$, and the same conclusion follows.

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    $\begingroup$ It's unimodality. Automatic corrector again. I leave it. $\endgroup$ Commented Sep 14, 2014 at 23:21
  • $\begingroup$ Very impressive solution. I'll note for those who have to look it up that "unimodal" means having a unique (local) maximum. $\endgroup$ Commented Sep 18, 2014 at 11:46
  • $\begingroup$ Great solution! $\endgroup$ Commented Sep 18, 2014 at 23:23

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