1
$\begingroup$

If $f\in L^1(\mathbb{T})$ and $g\in L^\infty(\mathbb{T})$ where $\mathbb{T}$ is the circle, such that $\hat{f}\in L^{p}(\mathbb{Z})$ for some $1\leq p<\infty$, do we have that $f*g$ is differentiable almost everywhere?

$\endgroup$
1
  • 2
    $\begingroup$ Nope. The classical Weierstrass example of nowhere differentiable function is $h(z)=\sum_{k\ge 1} 4^{-k}z^{100^k}$ and that is $f*g$ with $f=g=\sum_{k\ge 1} 2^{-k}z^{100^k}$, both Holder continuous and with coefficients in all $\ell^p$, $p>0$. $\endgroup$
    – fedja
    Commented Oct 31, 2013 at 4:00

0

You must log in to answer this question.