Let $k$ be a field and $\mathfrak{g}$ a Lie algebra over $k$. Put $K(\mathfrak{g}) = \bigcap_{f\in\mathrm{Der}(\mathfrak{g})} \mathrm{Ker}(f)$, which is a Lie subalgebra of $\mathfrak{g}$.
Question. Is it true that $K(\mathfrak{g})=0$ for any (finite-dimensional) $\mathfrak{g}$? If not, is there some characterization?
Here are my quick observations:
- If $\mathfrak{g}$ is finite-dimensional and semisimple, then $K(\mathfrak{g})=0$.
- If $\mathfrak{g}$ is positively graded (e.g. abelian), then $K(\mathfrak{g})=0$.
- If $K(\mathfrak{g_i})=0$, then $K\left(\bigoplus_i\mathfrak{g}_i\right) = 0$.
I haven't found any counterexamples yet. Any comments are appreciated.