Let $F = (F(x) : x \in \mathbf{R}^n)$ be a family of $\mathbf{R}^k$-valued random variables indexed by $\mathbf{R}^n$ (to be clear there is a single probability space $(\Omega,\Sigma,\mathbf{P})$ such that for each $x \in \mathbf{R}^n$, we have a random variable $F(x) : (\Omega,\Sigma,\mathbf{P}) \to (\mathbf{R}^k,\text{Borel}(\mathbf{R}^k))$.
This is a 'random field in $\mathbf{R}^k$ indexed by $\mathbf{R}^n$' - i.e. we can think of it as a single random variable $F : (\Omega,\Sigma,\mathbf{P}) \to (S, B)$, where $S = (\mathbf{R}^k)^{\mathbf{R}^n}$ is the space of functions from $\mathbf{R}^n$ to $\mathbf{R}^k$ and $$ B = \Pi_{t \in \mathbf{R}^n}\text{Borel}(\mathbf{R}^k) $$ is the product of Borel sigma algebras.
Suppose I have a sequence $F_k$ of such things. What is the correct notion of 'convergence in distribution' $F_k \to F$?
Should I look at $\mu_{F_k} := \mathbf{P}\circ F_k^{-1}$ as a probability measure on $S$ and see if $\int g d\mu_{F_k} \to \int g d\mu_F$ for every bounded continuous function $g$? The reason I'm suspicious is that the topological space $(S,\text{product topology})$ is not metrizable and that throws me off what I usually think weak convergence of measures ought to be...
EDIT: It's possible that this stack exchange answer sort of resolves my confusion but does anyone know of a source? https://math.stackexchange.com/q/4698018/562248