Let $\pi\colon X \rightarrow Y$ be a Serre fibration. Define $\Sigma_f\pi \colon \Sigma_f X \rightarrow Y$ be the fiberwise unreduced suspension of $\pi$. Thus $\Sigma_f X = X \times [0,1] / {\sim}$, where $\sim$ identifies $(x,0)$ with $(x',0)$ whenever $\pi(x) = \pi(x')$ and also $(x,1)$ with $(x',1)$ whenever $\pi(x) = \pi(x')$.
Question: Must $\Sigma_f\pi \colon \Sigma_f X \rightarrow Y$ also be a Serre fibration?
I think this is probably false for Hurewicz fibrations, and I would also be interested in counterexamples in that more general context.