Have I understood this correctly: So originally we consider the following partial differential equation:
$$u_t= \frac{u_{xx}}{1+w}-\frac{1}{\epsilon}(1+w)u^3+\frac{wu}{\epsilon(1+w)} \text{ in } \Omega \times (0,\infty)$$ $$w_t=(1+w)^2f^2-w \text{ in } \Omega \times (0,\infty)$$ $$u_x = 0 \text{ on } \partial \Omega$$ $$u(x,0)=u_0(x) \ , \ w(x,0)=w_0(x) \text{ in } \Omega$$
Afterwards it says: For $f, w_0 \in H^2(\Omega)$, the second equation is an ODE in the Banach space $H^2(\Omega)$. There exists a solution of this ODE.
- Considering only: $w_t=(1+2)^2f^2-w$, $f, w_0(x) \in C(\Omega)$ is sufficient for Existenz according to Peano's theorem.
- However, if we consider the complete pde we need $u \in H^2(\Omega)$ and therefore as we know that $u$ will have the same properties as $f$, we thus assume $f$ and accordingly also $w \in H^2(\Omega)$ and obtain a ODE in $H^2(\Omega)$ and with the theorem of Cauchy, Lipschitz,Picard also the existence of a solution.