Conjecture
I believe the following inequality is true but I cannot prove it. Let $\alpha \in (0, 2)$ and $x, y \in \mathbb{R}$. Then, it holds that
$$ \Big\vert \vert x + y \vert^\alpha - \vert x \vert^\alpha - \vert y \vert^\alpha \Big\vert \leq \begin{cases} 2 \vert x \vert^{p\alpha} \vert y \vert^{(1 - p)\alpha} &, 0 < \alpha \leq 1 \\ \alpha \vert x \vert \vert y \vert^{\alpha - 1} + (\alpha + 1) \vert x \vert^{p\alpha} \vert y \vert^{(1 - p)\alpha} &, 1 < \alpha \leq 2 \end{cases} $$ for any $p \in [0, 1]$.
Edit
The inequality follows surprisingly easily from symmetry of $x$ and $y$ in Equation 3.8 of Astrauskas et al (1991) as suggested by Brendan McKay. This inequality reads as $$ \Big\vert \vert x + y \vert^\alpha - \vert x \vert^\alpha - \vert y \vert^\alpha \Big\vert \leq \begin{cases} 2 \vert x \vert^{\alpha} &, 0 < \alpha \leq 1 \\ \alpha \vert x \vert \vert y \vert^{\alpha - 1} + (\alpha + 1) \vert x \vert^{\alpha} &, 1 < \alpha \leq 2 \end{cases} $$
In that paper, the inequality was stated as a matter of fact without any reference. I would prefer it if I could cite an original source with proof instead of just the equation from Astrauskas et al (1991). Therefore, I have added a reference-request tag to this question.