As suggested by Jochen Glueck, let us consider a two point space, $X = \{0,1\}$. Then $\mathcal{M}(X) = \{(1-\lambda)\delta_0 + \lambda \delta_1\mid \lambda \in [0,1]\}$ where $\delta_x$ denotes the Dirac mass concentrated at $x$. Now, consider the functional
$$
F: \mathcal{M}(X) \longrightarrow \mathbb{R},\quad F((1-\lambda)\delta_0 + \lambda \delta_1) = \lambda^2.
$$
Assume that $(f_n)\subseteq \mathcal{C}(X)$ is a sequence which converges to $F$, i.e.
$$
\sup_{\mu\in \mathcal{M}(X)}\left|\int_X f_nd\mu - F(\mu)\right| = \sup_{\lambda \in [0,1]} \left|(1-\lambda)f_n(0) + \lambda f_n(1) - \lambda^2\right| \rightarrow 0.
$$
Then, $\left|(1-\lambda)f_n(0) + \lambda f_n(1) - \lambda^2\right| \rightarrow 0$ for each fixed $\lambda \in [0,1]$. By taking $\lambda = 0$ we see that $f_n(0) \rightarrow 0$ and by taking $\lambda = 1$ we see that $f_n(1)\rightarrow 1$. But then we get that $\left|(1-\lambda)f_n(0) + \lambda f_n(1) - \lambda^2\right| \rightarrow 1/4$ for $\lambda = 1/2$ which is a contradiction. Hence the answer is no!