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Let $X$ be a compact space. Let $\mathcal{M}(X)$ be the space of all probability measures on $X$. Denote by $C(X)$ and $C(\mathcal{M}(X))$ the real continuous function on $X$ and $\mathcal{M}(X)$ respectively. Naturally, $C(X)$ is a subspace of $C(\mathcal{M}(X))$ since for $f\in C(X)$, the function $\mu\mapsto \int fd\mu$ is continuous.

Question: is $C(X)$ is dense in $C(\mathcal{M}(X))$?

Thanks.

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    $\begingroup$ Hint: Consider the case $X = \{1,2\}$. $\endgroup$ Commented Jul 2, 2021 at 13:26
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    $\begingroup$ If Jochen Glueck's hint is not enough, maybe I should just say that the image of $C(X)$ in $C(\mathcal{M}(X))$ consists exactly of the continuous affine functions (i.e. functions preserving the "convex combination" operation), and is a norm-closed proper linear subspace of $C(\mathcal{M}(X))$. If you want something that is norm dense in $C(\mathcal{M}(X))$, take the subring of it generated by the image of $C(X)$ and use the Stone-Weierstrass theorem. $\endgroup$ Commented Jul 2, 2021 at 17:30
  • $\begingroup$ @RobertFurber You are correct. I will delete. $\endgroup$ Commented Jul 2, 2021 at 18:31
  • $\begingroup$ @user119197 In my comment, I have assumed that $X$ is Hausdorff. Is this assumption what you wanted? $\endgroup$ Commented Jul 2, 2021 at 18:44

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As suggested by Jochen Glueck, let us consider a two point space, $X = \{0,1\}$. Then $\mathcal{M}(X) = \{(1-\lambda)\delta_0 + \lambda \delta_1\mid \lambda \in [0,1]\}$ where $\delta_x$ denotes the Dirac mass concentrated at $x$. Now, consider the functional $$ F: \mathcal{M}(X) \longrightarrow \mathbb{R},\quad F((1-\lambda)\delta_0 + \lambda \delta_1) = \lambda^2. $$ Assume that $(f_n)\subseteq \mathcal{C}(X)$ is a sequence which converges to $F$, i.e. $$ \sup_{\mu\in \mathcal{M}(X)}\left|\int_X f_nd\mu - F(\mu)\right| = \sup_{\lambda \in [0,1]} \left|(1-\lambda)f_n(0) + \lambda f_n(1) - \lambda^2\right| \rightarrow 0. $$ Then, $\left|(1-\lambda)f_n(0) + \lambda f_n(1) - \lambda^2\right| \rightarrow 0$ for each fixed $\lambda \in [0,1]$. By taking $\lambda = 0$ we see that $f_n(0) \rightarrow 0$ and by taking $\lambda = 1$ we see that $f_n(1)\rightarrow 1$. But then we get that $\left|(1-\lambda)f_n(0) + \lambda f_n(1) - \lambda^2\right| \rightarrow 1/4$ for $\lambda = 1/2$ which is a contradiction. Hence the answer is no!

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