Suppose $W_p(\mu_n,\mu)\to 0$ and $d(E(\mu_n),E(\mu))<r_n$. Here, $W_p$ is the $p$th-order Wasserstein distance (with respect to the metric $d$) and $\mu_n,\mu$ are probability measures on some metric space (say, $\mathbb{R}^n$, but this isn't crucial). Can anything be concluded regarding the convergence rate of $W_p(\mu_n,\mu)$? Or can this be arbitrarily bad? Does it help if $p=1$?
Convergence of the first moments is very weak, so my sense is that controlling the rate of convergence of the first moments won't tell us much about convergence of the underlying measures. I am curious if there is an explicit example to show how bad this can get. (Or, is my intuition off?)