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I asked this question in MathStackExchange, but I didn't receive any answer.

Let $K/\mathbb{Q}$ be a Galois extension of degree $n$, and denote its ring of integers by $\mathcal{O}_K$. Let $\mathfrak{p}$ be an arbitrary prime ideal of $\mathcal{O}_K$, which is unramified over $\mathbb{Z}$, and prime to $n!$. We will denote the residue field of $\mathfrak{p}$ by $\kappa(\mathfrak{p})$, its characteristic by $p$, and its residue degree by $f$. Let $x \in \mathcal{O}_K$, and let $\bar{x}$ be its image in $\kappa(\mathfrak{p})$, and assume that $P \in \mathbb{Z}[X]$ is a monic minimal polynomial of $\bar{x}$, such that $P(x) \in \mathfrak{p} \backslash \mathfrak{p}^2$, and $\deg(P)=f$.

(Q): Show that $\mathcal{O}_K/\mathfrak{p}^2$ is generated by the image of $x$ over $\mathbb{Z}/p^2\mathbb{Z}$.


My attempts: Since $P$ has minimal degree among the polynomials which are vanishing $x$ module $\mathfrak{p}$, it should be irreducible over the field $\mathbb{Z}/p\mathbb{Z}$. Therefore $1, x, \cdots, x^{f-1}$ are linearly independent over $\mathbb{Z}/p$. Also, notice that $$\dfrac{\dfrac{\mathbb{Z}}{p\mathbb{Z}}}{P(X)} \equiv \dfrac{\mathbb{Z}}{p\mathbb{Z}} \oplus x \dfrac{\mathbb{Z}}{p\mathbb{Z}} \oplus \cdots \oplus x^{f-1}\dfrac{\mathbb{Z}}{p\mathbb{Z}}$$ is a field between $\dfrac{\mathbb{Z}}{p\mathbb{Z}}$ and $\dfrac{\mathcal{O}_K}{\mathfrak{p}}$, with $\dfrac{\mathbb{Z}}{p\mathbb{Z}}$-degree equal to $f=[\dfrac{\mathcal{O}_K}{\mathfrak{p}}:\dfrac{\mathbb{Z}}{p\mathbb{Z}}]$, so it should equal to $\dfrac{\mathcal{O}_K}{\mathfrak{p}}$. So we can conclude that $\dfrac{\mathcal{O}_K}{\mathfrak{p}}$ is generated by the image of $x$ over $\dfrac{\mathbb{Z}}{p\mathbb{Z}}$. (My proof of this fact may contain extra details; if so, please let me know). But I don't have any idea why $\mathcal{O}_K/\mathfrak{p}^2$ is generated by the image of $x$ over $\mathbb{Z}/p^2\mathbb{Z}$?

I'm looking to figure out how, in this case, "the assumption $P(x) \in \mathfrak{p} \backslash \mathfrak{p}^2$" helps me solve the problem. I have this issue with similar problems; for instance, I had trouble dealing with exercises 19-22 from chapter 4 of Marcus's Number Fields. (In these exercises I had to deal with "the assumption $\pi \in Q \backslash Q^2$", finally I solved them after a long hard try and search). Also, I tried to look for some versions of Nakayama's lemma, but I have not succeeded.

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A set of representatives for $\mathcal{O}$ modulo $\mathfrak{p}$ is given by $$S:=\{a_0+a_1x+\dotsb+a_{f-1}x^{f-1}\ :\ a_0,a_1,\dotsc,a_{f-1}\in\{0,1,\dotsc,p-1\}\}.$$ As $P(x)$ lies in $\mathfrak{p}\setminus\mathfrak{p}^2$, a set of representatives for $\mathfrak{p}$ modulo $\mathfrak{p}^2$ is given by $$S\cdot P(x)=\{b_0P(x)+b_1xP(x)+\dotsb+b_{f-1}x^{f-1}P(x)\ :\\ b_0,b_1,\dotsc,b_{f-1}\in\{0,1,\dotsc,p-1\}\}.$$ Therefore, a set of representatives for $\mathcal{O}$ modulo $\mathfrak{p^2}$ is given by $$S+S\cdot P(x)=\{a_0+\dotsb+a_{f-1}x^{f-1}+b_0P(x)+\dotsb+b_{f-1}x^{f-1}P(x)\ :\\ a_0,b_0,\dotsc,a_{f-1},b_{f-1}\in\{0,1,\dotsc,p-1\}\}.$$ In particular, $\mathcal{O}=\mathbb{Z}[x]+\mathfrak{p}^2$, and the result follows.

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  • $\begingroup$ This answer sounds very simple. I'm afraid my intuition is wrong. I agree with you that $S$ is a set of representatives for $\mathcal{O}_K$ modulo $\mathfrak{p}$. Also, I can see that $S\cdot P(x)$ is a set of representatives for $\mathfrak{p}$ modulo $\mathfrak{p}^2$. But why $S+S\cdot P(x)$ is a set of representatives for $\mathcal{O}_K$ modulo $\mathfrak{p}^2$? This seems intuitively true, but I can not prove it. If we have this, then you are right and the problem will be solved. $\endgroup$ Commented Oct 7, 2020 at 20:01
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    $\begingroup$ @NeoTheComputer: Let me abbreviate $T:=S\cdot P(x)$. Start with an arbitrary $r\in\mathcal{O}$. Then there is a unique $s\in S$ such that $r-s\in\mathfrak{p}$. Hence there is also a unique $t\in T$ such that $r-s-t\in\mathfrak{p}^2$. So we proved that, for given $r\in\mathcal{O}$, there is a unique $u\in S+T$ such that $r-u\in\mathcal{p}^2$. Done. $\endgroup$
    – GH from MO
    Commented Oct 7, 2020 at 20:10
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    $\begingroup$ Thank you so much for your clarification. $\endgroup$ Commented Oct 7, 2020 at 20:12

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