0
$\begingroup$

Let $(T(t))_{t\ge0}$ be a strongly continuous contraction semigroup on a $\mathbb R$-Hilbert space $H$ with dissipative self-adjoint generator $(\mathcal D(A),A)$. In particular, $T(t)$ is self-adjoint for all $t>0$. By the spectral theorem, $$T(t)=e^{tA}\;\;\;\text{for all }t\ge0.\tag1$$ Let $(H_\lambda)_{\lambda\ge0}$ be the spectral decomposition related to $(\mathcal D(A),-A)$ (see, for example, Definition 1.8.1 and Theorem 1.8.2 on page 23 here) and $E_\lambda$ denote the orthogonal projection of $H$ onto $H_\lambda$. Using the spectral theorem, I was able to show that $$\lim_{t\to\infty}\left\|T(t)x\right\|_H=\left\|E_0x\right\|_H\;\;\;\text{for all }x\in H\tag2.$$

How can we conclude that we even got $$\left\|T(t)x-E_0x\right\|_H\xrightarrow{t\to\infty}0\tag3$$ for all $x\in H$?

I know that in a Hilbert space, convergence is equivalent to weak convergence together with convergence of the norms. So, we would be done if we could show that $$\langle T(t)x,y\rangle_H\xrightarrow{t\to\infty}\langle E_0x,y\rangle\tag4\;\;\;\text{for all }x,y\in H.$$ If this is the correct approach, how can we show that?

$\endgroup$
3
  • 3
    $\begingroup$ I don't think it's research level ... in the multiplication operator picture $e^{tA}$ is multiplication by $e^{-tx}$ on $[0, \infty)$ and $E_0$ is multiplication by $1_{\{0\}}$. Yes, the former converges strongly to the latter. $\endgroup$
    – Nik Weaver
    Apr 1, 2019 at 11:31
  • 1
    $\begingroup$ It might be worthwhile to add that the following much more general result is true: If $(T(t))_{t\ge 0}$ is a bounded $C_0$-semigroup with generator $A$ on a reflexive Banach space (say, over $\mathbb{C}$) and if $\sigma(A) \cap i\mathbb{R} \subseteq \{0\}$, then $T(t)$ converges strongly as $t \to \infty$. This is (one version of) the so-called ABLV theorem. $\endgroup$ Apr 1, 2019 at 17:25
  • $\begingroup$ To elaborate on Nik's comment, your claim follows from functional calculus (+ dominated convergence), since $\|e^{tA}x-E_0x\|^2=\int_{(-\infty, 0]} |e^{ts}-\chi_{\{ 0\} }(s)|^2\, d\rho(s)$ for some finite measure $\rho$. (And, indeed, this is certainly not research level.) $\endgroup$ Apr 1, 2019 at 19:46

1 Answer 1

0
$\begingroup$

By definition, $$\langle T(t)x,E_0x\rangle_H=\left\|E_0x\right\|_H^2+\underbrace{\int_0^\infty e^{-t\lambda}\:{\rm d}\underbrace{\langle E_\lambda x,E_0x\rangle_H}_{=\:\left\|E_0x\right\|_H^2}}_{=\:0}\tag5$$ and hence $$\left\|T(t)x-E_0x\right\|_H^2=\left\|T(t)x\right\|_H^2-\left\|E_0x\right\|_H^2\xrightarrow{t\to\infty}0\tag6$$ for all $x\in H$.

$\endgroup$
5
  • 1
    $\begingroup$ This is not correct. $\endgroup$
    – Nik Weaver
    Apr 1, 2019 at 14:44
  • $\begingroup$ @NikWeaver Maybe you can be a little bit more concrete. $\endgroup$
    – 0xbadf00d
    Apr 1, 2019 at 18:37
  • $\begingroup$ For instance, $E_0$ is the orthogonal projection onto ${\rm ker}(A)$. So $\|E_0x\|^2 = \|x\|^2 \not\to 0$ for any nonzero $x \in {\rm ker}(A)$. $\endgroup$
    – Nik Weaver
    Apr 1, 2019 at 21:36
  • $\begingroup$ @NikWeaver Sorry, that was just a typo. The "$+$" was supposed to be "$-$" on the right-hand side of $(6)$. $\endgroup$
    – 0xbadf00d
    Apr 2, 2019 at 5:40
  • 1
    $\begingroup$ Okay, makes sense. It seems like the easiest way to infer convergence to $0$ in (6) is via spectral theory though. $\endgroup$
    – Nik Weaver
    Apr 2, 2019 at 13:43

Your Answer

By clicking “Post Your Answer”, you agree to our terms of service and acknowledge you have read our privacy policy.

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.