Consider the "$m$-th power" map $f:K(\mathbb Z,n)\to K(\mathbb Z,n)$ given by $m\in \mathbb Z\cong H^n(K(\mathbb Z,n),\mathbb Z)\cong [K(\mathbb Z,n), K(\mathbb Z,n)]$. Is it true that in any degree the map $f^*$ on integral cohomology sends any element to a multiple of $m$? It's obviously true in degree $n$ where $f^*$ is just multiplication by $m$ but what about higher degrees? It's enough to consider the case when $m=p$ is prime.
2 Answers
As you say, we can reduce to the case where $m=p$ is prime. By the universal coefficient theorem we know that $H^*(K(\mathbb{Z},n);\mathbb{Z})/p$ injects in the ring $A^*=H^*(K(\mathbb{Z},n);\mathbb{Z}/p)$, so we just need to show that $f^*$ acts as zero on $A^*$ in positive degrees. The kernel of $f^*$ is an ideal and is closed under Steenrod operations (including the Bockstein). There is a tautological class $u\in A^n$ with $f^*(u)=pu=0$. It is known that $A^*$ is the free unstable algebra over the Steenrod algebra generated by $u$ subject only to the relation $\beta(u)=0$. That shows that $f^*=0$ on $A^{>0}$ as required.
-
$\begingroup$ Thanks! Is the fact that $f^*=0$ on $A^{>0}$ somewhere in the literature? I expect it should be as the question seems natural enough to me. $\endgroup$ Commented Sep 5, 2017 at 12:13
-
$\begingroup$ These generating classes are additive Steenrod operations applied to $u$ (and are `stable' in the sense I was getting at), and so $f^* = 0$ is clear. $\endgroup$ Commented Sep 5, 2017 at 13:05
When $n=2$, $K(\mathbb Z,2) = \mathbb CP^{\infty}$, and one can see exactly what is going on: if $x \in H^2(K(\mathbb Z,2);\mathbb Z)$ is the fundamental class, then $m^*(x^k) = m^k x^k$.
For higher $n$, things are complicated I think, in part because $H^*(K(\mathbb Z,n);\mathbb Z)$ is too messy to easily describe. (If it was too messy for Serre, it is too messy for the rest of us!) It is easy to calculate $m^*$ on one type of element though: if $y \in H^*(K(\mathbb Z,n);\mathbb Z)$ is in the image of $e^*$, where $e: \Sigma K(\mathbb Z,n) \rightarrow K(\mathbb Z, n+1)$ is the canonical map, then $m^*(y)=my$.
-
1$\begingroup$ I was hoping my question can be answered without explicitly computing $H^*(K(\mathbb Z), n),\mathbb Z)$ which I know is hard to compute. Perhaps by induction on $n$ by analyzing the spectral sequence of $K(\mathbb Z,n)\to\star\to K(\mathbb Z,n+1)$. $\endgroup$ Commented Sep 5, 2017 at 2:07
-
1$\begingroup$ I'm most familiar with the mod p cohomology of $K(\mathbb Z/p,n)$'s, where the image of $e^*$ does generate the cohomology ring. But I am dubious that this holds integrally. $\endgroup$ Commented Sep 5, 2017 at 2:21