Let $H=H_0^1(0,\ell)\times H_*^1(0,\ell)\times H_*^1(0,\ell)$ be equipped with the norms \begin{align*} \|(\varphi,\psi,w)\|_1^2&=A\|\varphi_x+\psi+lw\|_{L^2}^2+B\|w_x-l\varphi\|_{L^2}^2+C\|\psi_x\|_{L^2}^2,\\ \|(\varphi,\psi,w)\|_2^2&=\|\varphi_x\|_{L^2}^2+\|w_x\|_{L^2}^2+\|\psi_x\|_{L^2}^2. \end{align*} where $H_*^1(0,\ell)=\{f\in H^1;\;\int_0^\ell f(x)\;dx=0\}$ and $A$, $B$, $C$, $l$ are positive constants. It's also assumed $l\neq \frac{n\pi}{\ell}$, otherwise the condition $\|U\|_1=0\Rightarrow U=0$ is not satisfied.
Some research papers that deals with systems of PDEs from semigroup point of view (example) states $\|\cdot\|_1$ and $\|\cdot\|_2$ are equivalent. I've tried to prove it without success, so I'd like help.
It's pretty clear (from Poincaré inequality) that $\|\cdot\|_1\leq K\|\cdot\|_2$ however the converse is not obvious for me. Of course, if we know that $H$ is complete with respect to $\|\cdot\|_1$, (from open mapping theorem) it's not necessary to prove the converse but I'm having troubles to prove the completeness too.
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