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Question: Let $\Omega\subset \mathbb{S}^2_+$ be any geodesically convex subset of the hemisphere $\mathbb{S}^2_+$. Then is it true that $\mu_1(\Omega)\geq \mu_1(\mathbb{S}^2_+)$ where $\mu_1$ is the first (non-trivial) Neumann eigenvalue of the Laplacian?

The above statement clearly fails when $\mathbb{S}^2_{+}$ is replaced by a rectangle in the plane and $\Omega$ is a thin strip around the diagonal of the rectangle. Still, I am wondering if such a construction generalizes to the hemisphere as well.

Update: Surprisingly this problem seems harder than it looks.

  • So far the best estimates on $\mu_1(\Omega)$ that I found here: $$\mu_1(\Omega)\geq \frac{\pi^2}{D^2} + \frac{1}{2}$$ where $D=\operatorname{diameter}(\Omega).$ Thus if $\mu_1(\Omega)<2$ then $D> \frac{\pi}{\sqrt{3/2}}.$ This also gives a lower bound on the perimeter of $\Omega$ since $P(\Omega)\geq 2 D \geq \frac{2\sqrt{2}}{\sqrt{3}} \pi.$
  • On the other hand, it is also known that $\mu_1(\Omega)\leq \mu_1(B)$ where $B$ is a geodesic ball of the same volume as $\Omega.$
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  • $\begingroup$ Here's a heuristic. Call the smallest Neumann eigenvalue the "zeroth" so we can just say "first." The first eignvalue for the hemisphere is no smaller than $2$ (as that's the first nontrivial Neumann eigenvalue of the sphere). A long narrow convex subset of diameter $L$ will look like a geodesic of length $L$, so its first eigenvalue is close to the first eigenvalue of the interval of length $L$, namely $\frac{\pi^2}{L^2}$. Since the longest possible diameter is $L=\pi$, the smallest first eigenvalue of a long narrow interval should be $1$ and $1 < 2$ $\endgroup$
    – Neal
    Commented Apr 5 at 17:54
  • $\begingroup$ @Neal that is what I had in mind, but I am having trouble showing that the eigenvalues of a thin tube around the half-geodesic converge to the eigenvalues on the half-geodesic with the flat metric as the thickness of the tube tends to zero. $\endgroup$
    – Student
    Commented Apr 5 at 20:42
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    $\begingroup$ Do you need to show convergence? Just estimate the first eigenvalue of the thin tube: Take tubular coordinates $(s, r, \theta)$ where $s$ is the long dimension and $r,\theta$ vary in the thin cross-section disk. Let $u(s, r, \theta) = \cos(\pi s / L)$. Maybe I'm wrong about the complexity of the computation, but I think one should be able to show $\int u = 0$ and get a good estimate its Rayleigh quotient from above. $\endgroup$
    – Neal
    Commented Apr 5 at 21:37
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    $\begingroup$ (Also, I think convergence is delicate: the eigenfunctions that have radial variation across the tube will have their eigenvalues blow up, only the eigenfunctions that have minimal/no radial variation will have their eigenvalues converge.) $\endgroup$
    – Neal
    Commented Apr 5 at 21:40

2 Answers 2

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The original inequality indicated in the question appears to be true -- for various instances of such a result see:

  • Theorem 4.3 in J.F. Escobar, Uniqueness theorems on conformal deformation of metrics, Sobolev inequalities, and an eigenvalue estimate. Comm. Pure Appl. Math.43(1990), no.7, 857–883, and
  • Theorem 4.15 in V. Bayle and C. Rosales, Some isoperimetric comparison theorems for convex bodies in Riemannian manifolds, Indiana Univ. Math. J. 54 No. 5 (2005), 1371–1394.
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Let $\Omega$ be a connected domain and denote its the Neumann eigenvalues by $ 0 = \mu_0(\Omega) < \mu_1(\Omega) \leq \cdots $

Let $\mathbb{S}_+^2 = \{(x,y,z)\in\mathbb{S}^2\ |\ y \geq 0\}$ be the hemisphere facing the positive $y$ direction. Because every Neumann eigenfunction on $H$ extends to an eigenfunction on $\mathbb{S}^2$ by reflection, $\mu_1(H) \geq 2 = \mu_1(\mathbb{S}^2)$.

We will formalize the intuition that a long, thin convex subset should have a low-frequency spectrum very similar to that of a line segment. We do this by defining a convex subset $\Omega\subset \mathbb{S}_+^2$ and a test function $u$ on $\Omega$, and estimate its Rayleigh quotient $R(u)$ to show $$ \mu_1(\mathbb{S}_+^2) \geq 2 \geq R(u) \geq \mu_1(\Omega).$$

Define $\Omega$ as the image of $$ [0,\pi]\times[-\epsilon,\epsilon] \ni (s,r)\to \left( \cos(s)\cos(r), \sin(s)\cos(r), \sin(r)\right) \in \mathbb{S}_+^2$$ This defines geodesic normal coordinates for a very thin strip around the equator $H\cap\mbox{$xy$-plane}$. The $s$ coordinate measures distance around the equator, and the $r$ coordinate measures distance away from the equator.

Figure that the first Neumann eigenfunction on the strip should be basically the same as on the line, so pick a test function $u(s,r) = \cos(s)$. Calculating in the $(s,r)$ coordinates, the $L^2$ norm of $u$ is $\pi\sin(\epsilon) $ and the $L^2$ norm of its gradient is $$ \frac{\pi}{2}\int_{-\epsilon}^\epsilon \frac{dr}{\cos(r)}. $$ The integral factor is bounded by $2\epsilon \leq \int_{\epsilon}^\epsilon dr/\cos(r) \leq 2\epsilon/\cos(\epsilon)$

So the Rayleigh quotient of $u$ is estimated above and below by $$ \frac{\epsilon}{\sin(\epsilon)} \leq R(u) \leq \frac{\epsilon}{\cos(\epsilon)\sin(\epsilon)} $$

By choosing $\epsilon$ small enough, the upper bound is less than $2$. The function $u$ is mean-free, and $\mu_1(\Omega)$ minimizes the Rayleigh quotient over all mean-free functions. So the estimate on $R(u)$ shows that $\mu_1(\Omega) < \mu_1(\mathbb{S}_+^2)$.

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  • $\begingroup$ Thank you for your answer, but I am not sure if the thin strip is a geodesically convex subset of the hemisphere, what do you think? $\endgroup$
    – Student
    Commented Apr 9 at 21:30
  • $\begingroup$ Good catch. I think this is fixed by considering a "banana" between two geodesics that intersect at the equator on the boundary of $\mathbb{S}^+$, andhave an angle of $2\epsilon$ between them. This domain's convex (a geodesic connecting two points must be the "long way round" since a shorter path along the bdry can be found), and the estimate is modified with inner integral limits dependent on $s$. I think since integrands are all positive, the upper bound will carry through. If I have time later this week I'll check this and update my answer more carefully. But lmk if you see a flaw here. $\endgroup$
    – Neal
    Commented Apr 11 at 3:46
  • $\begingroup$ The first eigenvalue of this lune is $\frac{\pi}{2\epsilon}(\frac{\pi}{2\epsilon}+1)$ which blows up as $\epsilon\to 0,$ so I am not sure if this argument would work. $\endgroup$
    – Student
    Commented Apr 12 at 3:30
  • $\begingroup$ @Student you sure that's not the first Dirichlet eigenvalue? $\endgroup$
    – Neal
    Commented Apr 12 at 17:26
  • $\begingroup$ that is also the first Dirichlet eigenvalue, see Section 2 here link.springer.com/article/10.1007/s10455-021-09797-y $\endgroup$
    – Student
    Commented Apr 12 at 18:09

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